Program for the Assessment of Veterinary Education (PAVE) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which joint is most commonly affected by OCD in dogs?
• Diffenbachia (dumbcane) ingestion in goats typically causes which condition?
• Which species transmits and poses the greatest risk for zoonotic E. coli O157:H7?
• Reticulocyte counts are a reliable indicator of red blood cell regeneration in which species?
• In Pacheco's disease, which necropsy finding is typical?
• For a monkey requiring examination of facial anatomy, which anesthetic agent is commonly used?
• Which organism is commonly associated with flea-borne tapeworm infections in dogs?
• What forms the ventral boundary of Viborg's Triangle?
• Exertional rhabdomyolysis in horses is commonly referred to as which term?
• Which red blood cell morphology is most characteristic of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)?
• In canine estrus cytology, which cell type predominates?
• What is the recommended treatment for Rhodococcus equi in foals?
• Which joints communicate in the horse's leg?
• Pacheco's disease primarily affects which group of animals?
• Which medication is a muscarinic agonist used to stimulate detrusor muscle contraction?
• Which rodent is predisposed to pregnancy toxemia?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with rabbit snuffles?
• Milk fever in cattle is most commonly associated with which metabolic abnormality?
• Which of the following is a potential complication of rectal palpation in horses?
• In a coughing cat with eggs approximately 80 micrometers in size, which parasite is most likely involved?
• Viborg's Triangle swells during which diseases?
• In a survey of 100 dogs, 10 had heartworm. What is the prevalence?
• Which plant is most often implicated in crooked calf syndrome when ingested by cattle during early gestation?
• Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia in pigs causes which nasal sign?
• Which chemotherapy drug is known to cause cystitis?
• Mast cell tumors originate from which cell type?
• After minor surgery in a small mammal, which device helps prevent chewing sutures?
• Digoxin is best described as which type of drug, and what are its primary effects?
• In an adult cow with RDA showing metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia, and hypokalemia, which intravenous fluids are indicated?
• A sugar glider has just been castrated and the owner reports the animal is chewing the sutures. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
• Which disease in pigs is associated with rectal stricture?
• At 30–48 days of gestation in a sow, which pharmacologic combination is used to lyse the corpora lutea?
• If a family pet bobcat without vaccines bites a child, what is the recommended action?
• A vaccinated cat bites someone. How long should the cat be isolated?
• Which statement best describes reticulocyte testing in dogs and horses?
• An Arabian horse with a dark proliferation around the anus most likely has which tumor?
• A dog presents with craniocaudal movement of the stifle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which agent is used to induce parturition in cows?
• In Salmonella infections in pigs, which hematologic change is typical?
• How do piglets contract salmonellosis?
• Ehrlichia granulosis is zoonotic & carried by which species?
• Which organism is the most common cause of gastroenteritis from undercooked poultry?
• Which animals are predisposed to scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency?
• Taurine supplementation in cats to prevent what eye lesion?
• Which population is most likely to get toxocara/toxascaris?
• Which bandage is used for hip or sacroiliac luxation?
• Which of the following best describes the species commonly associated with zoonosis of Type A influenza?
• A dog with a perineal tumor and hypercalcemia most likely has which type of tumor?
• Which joint is NOT among the most common OCD sites in dogs after the shoulder?
• Which smear finding is most strongly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
• Most common reason a vaccine might cause a reaction?
• Aspergillus in birds causes what lesion?
• What is the plan for a horse with a red lesion on the tongue and dysphagia?
• What would be your diagnostic plan for a red/pink raised plaque on a cat's eye?
• A dog that recently traveled to British Columbia presents fever and diarrhea; what disease is likely?
• In a female dog with a positive Brucella slide agglutination test, what is the recommended next step?
• Radiograph of a poodle with enlarged heart, ¾ murmur on left side, dyspneic, what do you treat with?
• A foal with swollen joints is most likely diagnosis?
• Tularemia is most commonly caused by infection with which bacterium?
• Ich infection in fish causes which skin lesion?
• What is a significant zoonotic concern with imported turtles?
• Young pigs with vomiting and diarrhea are most likely to have which disease?
• In pigs with open cecum, which worm genera are present?
• Maple leaf toxicity in animals commonly presents with which sign?
• For a small intestinal anastomosis in surgery, which suture pattern is typically used?
• How is VEE different from WEE?
• Which vein is used to collect blood from a cat when venous access in a dog is not feasible?
• Which drug is used to treat elimination disorders in cats?
• Anaplasma infection in cows is most commonly seen in which age group?
• Aplastic anemia in cattle is caused by which toxin source?
• The most common deficiency in piglets is which mineral?
• Which test is used to diagnose Brucella canis infection in dogs?
• Permanent rumenotomy in a heifer is occasionally performed to address which condition?
• Which radiographic views are used for navicular syndrome/P3 fracture diagnosis?
• Which electrolyte is typically decreased in the described metabolic disturbances in the adult cow with RDA?
• Which bacterium is associated with pleuropneumonia in pigs?
• Which plant is known to cause aplastic anemia in cattle?
• What are the typical signs of discospondylitis in dogs?
• Which combination of animal groups are commonly associated with reservoirs for zoonotic Type A influenza?
• At approximately how many days post-conception can placentomes be palpated in cows?
• Footrot in cattle is caused by which pathogens?
• A cow at 300 days gestation with uterine torsion should be managed with what intervention?
• Ketamine is classified as which type of anesthetic agent?
• What clinical signs are seen with equine laryngeal paralysis?
• Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is caused by infection in utero with which agent?
• What is the most common acquired cardiac defect in dogs?
• Which breed is predisposed to amyloidosis?
• Iguana with end of tail pulled off, not bleeding, what do you do?
• Cat transfusion from Type A to B & vice versa causes what reaction(s)?
• Clinical signs of mad cow disease are similar to which condition?
• Most common lymphoma sites in cattle with bovine lymphosarcoma virus?
• Which organism is a recognized cause of abortion in sheep?
• In dogs, what is the primary tumor site for certain endocrine tumors such as pheochromocytoma?
• What clinical sign is characteristic of Marek's disease in chickens?
• An edematous, shiny small intestine is observed in a pig. Which organism is most likely the cause?
• Finely ground feed in pigs is most consistently associated with which condition?
• What organism most commonly causes dermatophytosis in cats?
• Postmortem findings consistent with gossypol toxicity include which of the following?
• The intradermal TB skin test in an ape is performed at which site?
• Which statement about canine uroliths is true?
• The breed commonly associated with congenital tracheal hypoplasia is which of the following?
• Schistocytes on a blood smear indicate which condition?
• During estrus in a bitch, what type of cells are observed on uterine cytology?
• How do you control zoonosis of the EE's?
• Palmar nerve block would desensitize which structure innervated by the palmar nerves?
• Which drug regimen is commonly used to treat equine COPD?
• All white neonatal foal with recessive X gene, parents are all white, no feces in 2 days, what caused this?
• Pinworms (Oxyuris sp.) cause which clinical signs in horses?
• Which medication stimulates detrusor muscle contraction?
• Which Salmonella serovar is mentioned in relation to rectal stricture in pigs?
• Most common age Johne's disease (Mycobacterium paratuberculosis) is diagnosed?
• In Marek's disease, which nerve is commonly affected?
• A child has pinworms. The family wants to know if she got them from the puppy?
• Lateral deviation of the radius in young animals most often results from which bone growth disturbance?
• Chlamydiosis is also known as psittacosis. Which option lists the disease synonym most accurately?
• The Morgan line refers to osteophyte formation on which part of the femur?
• Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) causes which type of lesions?
• In an eight-month pregnant mare, what is the source of progesterone?
• A horse with a leg wound and a stiff gait would most likely have which condition?
• In a horse that is ¾ lame and a palmar nerve block relieves the lameness, which structure is not affected by this block?
• A cow shows rigid ears, wide eyes, and lips drawn back. Which disease is suspected?
• Aborted fetus due to EHV-1 & EHV-4 typically shows which features?
• Goats are in estrus during which season?
• Which disease is associated with an anatomical triangle used as safe entry into the retromandibular space?
• Most common nasal tumor in a dog and its treatment?
• Which treatment is used for Sarcoptes infestation?
• A slide of bull semen shows curled tails, what do you do?
• What is the reversal agent for oxymorphone?
• Rectal stricture in pigs is associated with infection by which organism?
• Iguanas with demineralized bone are most likely deficient in which vitamin?
• Which therapy is used to prevent recurrence of a perineal adenoma after surgical removal?
• A congenital dermoid in Rhodesian ridgebacks is located on the back due to incomplete closure of which structure?
• Sulfa drugs can cause what ocular disease?
• Which clinical sign is most characteristic of pinworm infection in horses?
• Which two pathogens are the most common causes of abortion in sheep?
• Which diagnostic step is recommended for a cat with facial crusts to evaluate potential zoonotic infection?
• Which mineral supplement is used to prevent parakeratosis?
• In turtles, swollen eyelids and conjunctivitis are most consistent with deficiency of which vitamin?
• What is the most common type of urinary calculus in horses?
• Which intermediary host is involved in Dipylidium caninum infection in dogs?
• A pet bird has watery feces and the owner reports increased drinking. Which condition is most likely?
• Which agent is used in the treatment of mites in pigs?
• Pasturella in rabbits can cause which condition?
• Globoid-shaped heart on radiograph could be due to which?
• A fast-growing Thoroughbred horse with progressive ataxia starting from the rear limbs most likely has which condition?
• Pacheco's disease in birds causes death of well-fleshed animals, bright yellow urates with little feces, and an enlarged or mottled liver on necropsy. Which description best completes this statement?
• If mast cells are seen on a cat's blood smear, which type of tumor is most likely?
• Why can't reticulocytes be used to assess RBC regeneration in horses?
• GVD is identified on radiographs by which feature?
• Lateral deviation of the radius results from which condition?
• Downer cow that has not calved and is ketotic with low calcium; what treatment would you give?
• Which layer of the small intestine provides the best holding power for a surgical anastomosis?
• What is the critical window after foaling to absorb colostrum?
• Trichomonas infection in birds such as Falcons is commonly acquired from contact with which bird species?
• How long does it take for an ovulated egg to reach the oviduct in a horse?
• A horse that walks on its toe can be corrected with which procedure?
• Washed-out thoracic radiographs are most commonly caused by which exposure issue?
• Which boundary forms the dorsal boundary of Viborg's Triangle?
• What can be used to prevent recurrence of a perineal adenoma after surgical removal?
• What is the most common urolith type in dogs?
• Which tumor has approximately a 90% curative rate when treated with chemotherapy?
• Taurine deficiency in cats is associated with which cardiac disease?
• Queens are what kind of ovulators?
• Which of the following is not listed as a method to control zoonosis of the Eastern Equine Encephalitis viruses?
• Which radiographic finding is most consistent with a mediastinal mass?
• A kitten that can eat and drink independently with deciduous teeth starting to erupt is approximately what age?
• A dog treated for CCL rupture develops a draining tract. What is the most likely cause?
• On a radiograph of a cat thorax with an elevated trachea and caudally displaced heart, what's the cause?
• During precaval blood collection from swine on the right side, which structure should be avoided?
• In cattle with infectious pododermatitis between the claws that has extended to a joint, what treatment is indicated?
• The splenic ligament in the horse connects the spleen to which organ?
• Anaplasma infection in cows is most commonly seen in which age group?
• In iguanas, radiographs showing demineralized bone indicate a deficiency of which vitamin?
• Inutero infection with which virus can cause cerebellar hypoplasia in calves?
• Which pathogen is associated with pruritus in a cow?
• Bog spavin is most commonly observed in which joints area?
• A cat shows upper motor neuron signs in the forelimbs and lower motor neuron signs in the hind limbs. The most likely lesion location is which spinal segment range?
• The agent Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is best treated with which antibiotic?
• Goats are in estrus during which season?
• Which pathogen is classically associated with strangles in horses?
• Which bacterium is associated with pleuropneumonia in pigs?
• Which neonatal foal condition is associated with absence of feces in the first two days of life?
• Hepatic lipoidosis is described as secondary to which anatomical landmark?
• What is the primary mechanism by which digoxin increases cardiac contractility?
• Which organism is the causative agent of snuffles in rabbits?
• Which drug is commonly used in combination with furosemide to treat canine congestive heart failure?
• African gray parrot with a nodule under the beak; fine-needle aspirate shows cornified epithelial cells. Which disease or agent is most likely?
• Which embryologic defect is implicated in the development of congenital dermoids in Rhodesian ridgebacks?
• In reptiles, conjunctivitis with eyelid swelling is most associated with deficiency of which vitamin?
• Granulosa cell tumors in mares are commonly associated with increased production of which hormone?
• What is a normal resting heart rate range for an adult horse?
• Which statement is true regarding ovulation in queens?
• The gestational window during which Brucella infection commonly causes abortion in dogs is?
• Which bacteria are commonly implicated in bovine footrot?
• Bovine lymphosarcoma virus commonly affects multiple organs; which combination includes the heart and reproductive organs among the frequent sites?
• Which days of gestation define the window for luteolysis of corpora lutea in a sow?
• Bog spavin most commonly occurs at which joint?
• Which parasite causes alopecia on ventral abdomen and elbows?
• In birds, which structure primarily stores ingested food?
• Red fluid obtained from thoracocentesis that does not clot originates from which space?
• Brucella abortion in dogs typically occurs at which gestational range?
• Contagious ecthyma (orf) is a lip lesion disease most commonly associated with which species?
• Which smear finding is most consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
• Calves with stiff, swollen joints may need which supplement?
• Which diagnostic test is used to evaluate tear production in suspected keratoconjunctivitis sicca?
• What is the mechanism of action of activated charcoal?
• Which sign is associated with hypokalemia in cats?
• Which of the following signs is less typical for discospondylitis in dogs?
• Senecio poisoning in cows affects which organ system?
• Salmonella infection in pigs typically causes which signs?
• How is BVD managed in bovine herds?
• Atrophic rhinitis in pigs primarily causes which economic problem?
• Exposure to imported turtles poses a risk for infection with which organism?
• Which of the following is true about strangles in relation to Viborg's Triangle?
• What do you do to a rabbit with large incisors?
• Which nerve is damaged in Sweeney, particularly in draft breeds that pull heavy loads?
• Which spinal segment range is associated with a brachial plexus lesion in a cat or dog?
• Which hormone produced by the bovine endometrium is associated with lactation?
• What is a clinical sign of heartworm disease in humans?
• Which hormones are produced by the bovine endometrium?
• In immune-mediated arthritis, which leukocytes are typically elevated in the joint?
• In a dog with congestive heart failure due to mitral valve insufficiency who is dyspneic with ventral edema, which procedure is appropriate to perform to aid breathing?
• Crooked calf disease due to lupine toxicosis occurs during which gestational window?
• For a cat with a linear foreign body and a cut string in the mouth, what is the recommended intervention?
• Acorn toxicity in animals can present with which renal sign?
• Which statement describes the relationship of Viborg's Triangle to the retromandibular space?
• Which mineral disturbance is most classically associated with milk fever in dairy cattle?
• Which statement best describes a reason for the high morbidity of listeriosis?
• Which intervention is recommended for a cat with a linear foreign body and a string in the mouth?
• What is the term for a cow with a sunken spine?
• Which antibiotic is contraindicated in large-breed dogs?
• In a dog that becomes apneic after administration of a sedative, what is the immediate course of action?
• If a reptile tail has been torn off with no active bleeding, what is the recommended immediate action?
• In an Arabian horse, a dark perianal mass is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Ventral limb edema in a horse is most likely caused by which condition?
• A Falcon with Trichomonas contracted the disease from which source?
• What is the most common isolate from abscesses secondary to cat bites?
• Parakeratosis prevention in growing animals is achieved by supplementation with which mineral?
• Which genus is commonly involved in cat bite infections leading to abscesses?
• What is the most common organism found in cow lacerations?
• Rectal examination at approximately 30 days of gestation in a mare can show which of the following?
• Viborg's Triangle is an anatomical landmark used for safe entry into which space?
• In canine congestive heart failure, which combination is commonly used in treatment?
• Which disease causes decreased elasticity of the skin?
• Which condition should be suspected in a fast-growing Thoroughbred with progressive ataxia starting from the hind limbs?
• Which is the most common complication after thyroidectomy in cats?
• In equine medicine, what is the most common tumor of the penis?
• At about 30 days of gestation in a mare, rectal palpation findings most consistent with early pregnancy include which statement?
• Which boundaries define Viborg's Triangle?
• A dairy cow presents with a right-sided abdominal curve and a ping; which condition is most likely?
• A cat presents with a black or brown spot on the cornea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• The most common disease causing hypercalcemia in dogs is?
• Which endocrine disorder is associated with thinning of the skin and poor elasticity?
• Cat scratch fever commonly presents with which manifestation?
• In a pig with the cecum open, which worms are present?
• In horses, impactions commonly occur at which two regions of the gastrointestinal tract?
• Chickens with swollen waddles and joints, plus nasal discharge. Which disease is most likely?
• How long should a foal effectively ingest and absorb colostrum after birth?
• In mares, a granulosa cell tumor commonly arises from granulosa cells and often causes which behavioral change due to estrogen production?
• A beef heifer close to parturition is down and won't get up. The fetus is alive and there was a recent change from grain to roughage. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to assess a likely metabolic disorder?
• Which plant is known to cause stomatitis in goats when ingested?
• Which clinical sign is associated with maple leaf toxicity?
• In a female cat with large bladder stones, what surgical procedure is indicated for stone removal?
• Detecting mast cells on a feline blood smear points toward which tumor?
• Which radiographic projection helps isolate the navicular bone over the second phalanx in horses?
• Which animal is a common reservoir for tularemia?
• Spherocytes on a blood smear are most strongly associated with which condition?
• If laminitis is suspected in a horse, which diagnostic test is most appropriate for initial assessment?
• Which joints communicate in a horse's leg?
• EVA abortions in horses show fetuses that are which autolysis pattern relative to EHV abortions?
• Which breathing pattern is typically seen with upper airway obstruction in dogs?
• Why do you perform Caslicks procedures in mares?
• What is an effective treatment option for coccidiosis?
• To lyse a large corpus luteum around day 230 in a cow and induce estrus, which pharmacologic combination is used?
• Monkeys and guinea pigs are predisposed to which disease?
• What cells will you see in joint with immune-mediated arthritis?
• Foodborne shigella and viral hepatitis are most likely due to which of the following?
• A cat has crusts, itching, and red spots on the face and ears; the owner also reports itching on the abdomen. What is the recommended course of action?
• Bone spavin most commonly involves which joint?
• Which worm in pigs causes clinical signs similar to swine dysentery?
• What is the most likely cause of coliform bacteria detected in a milk bulk tank?
• Orf lesions on the mouth of sheep are caused by which type of virus?
• Why does listeriosis have high morbidity and mortality?
• Mouthrot in snakes is caused by which bacterium?
• In a dog with apnea after sedation, what is the immediate action?
• Which structure cannot be palpated rectally in a normal dog?
• Which cranial nerves must be damaged to produce strabismus?
• In a cat missing the top two teeth with radiographs showing bone lysis in the area of the dentition, what diagnostic test is indicated to evaluate the abscess?
• Describe clinical signs in a cat with diabetes mellitus.
• GVD radiographs may be described by which nickname associated with its appearance?
• Senecio poisoning in horses primarily affects which organ system?
• On thoracic radiographs, the presence of bowel loops within the thoracic cavity is most suggestive of which condition?
• Which diagnostic workup should be included for a cat with a pink raised plaque on the eye?
• In a flock of broilers all sick and antibiotics aren't helping, what is the next best step?
• A horse that stops after a run due to muscle rigidity is diagnosed with what?
• Postmortem findings associated with gossypol toxicity include which of the following?
• What is the primary goal of using prostaglandins and corticosteroids to lyse corpora lutea in a sow 30-48 days into gestation?
• In controlling BVD, what is the recommended strategy for animals with persistent infection?
• Which organism is associated with enzootic abortion of ewes?
• For a cow at 300 days gestation with uterine torsion, what is the recommended intervention?
• A mare is what type of ovulator?
• In a dog diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which drug should be avoided?
• In a mare, fertilization takes place in which reproductive structure?
• On a lateral radiograph, normal canine kidney size is approximately how many times the length of the second lumbar vertebra?
• Which chemotherapy agent is used for treatment of transmissible venereal tumor (TVT)?
• A palpated mare, 4 hours later her heart rate is increased. What is the most likely cause?
• In a cat with azotemia and hyperphosphatemia, which diagnostic test should be performed next?
• Marek's disease is caused by what type of virus?
• Which species poses the greatest zoonotic risk for E. coli O157:H7?
• Transmissible gastroenteritis in pigs is caused by which type of pathogen?
• What is the tx for lumpy jaw?
• What is the gestation of a mare?
• For diagnosing porcine parvovirus, which fetal sample should be submitted for testing?
• Which of the following is typically an acquired cardiac defect in dogs?
• The 'Redmite' in snakes carries which organism?
• In hyperparathyroidism, how are calcium and phosphate levels typically affected?
• Which treatment is appropriate for Streptococcus equi (strangles) in horses?
• A horse on pasture grazing is most likely to harbor which type of worm?
• What is the treatment for nitrate toxicity?
• What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly in horses?
• Which test would be used to diagnose Brucella canis infection in a dog?
• Atrophic rhinitis in pigs primarily damages which nasal structures?
• In snakes, the 'Red mite' is commonly associated with infection by which bacterium?
• Snuffles in rabbits is commonly caused by which organism?
• Which two pathogens are among the most common causes of abortion in sheep?
• Which dog breed is commonly associated with congenital tracheal hypoplasia?
• Which species is typically vaccinated to control zoonotic spread of Eastern Equine Encephalitis?
• In cows, palpation of placentomes is feasible around which days?
• In a dog with a limb tumor, thoracic radiographs are recommended to assess for what?
• Which radiographic sign is most consistent with heartworm disease in dogs?
• Which statement correctly describes the most common nasal tumor in dogs and its treatment?
• Which imaging modality is commonly used first to evaluate suspected heartworm disease in dogs?
• HBC dog with dropped elbow and no sensation suggests which injury?
• A sheep presents with crusty papules on the lip. What is an important counseling point for the owner regarding this condition?
• In treating Sarcoptes mange in dogs, which topical insecticide is listed as an option?
• Which imaging modality can be used to evaluate laminitis in a horse?
• Abyssinian cats are predisposed to which condition?
• Which Leptospira serovar is considered most virulent to humans?
• Which drug is used in the diagnostic Tensilon test for myasthenia gravis?
• Anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinoma in dogs is commonly associated with which electrolyte abnormality?
• Brachial plexus avulsion typically causes loss of motor function and sensory loss in which limb?
• Which organism is associated with pruritus in cattle?
• In birds, which structure is primarily responsible for grinding food?
• What is the Morgan line in canine hip dysplasia?